Def not a math major (BS/PharmD), but your explanation was like seeing through a visual illusion for the first time! lol
I was always taught PEMDAS growing up, and that the MD and the AS was read left to right in an equation like above. But stating the division as a fraction completely changes my mind now about how this calculation works. I think what would happen in a calculation I use every day if the former was used.
Example: Cockcroft-Gault Equation (estimation of renal function)
(140-age)(kg) / 72(SCr) vs (140-age) X kg ➗72 X SCr
In the first eq (correct one) an 80yo patient who weighs 65kg and has an SCr ~ 1.5 = 36.11
In the latter it = 81.25 (waaay too high for an 80yo lol)
edit: calculation variable
Well, as a pharmacist whose been stable on 50mg of vyvanse for more than 3 years, your wife and Doc are both incorrect…
Both are stimulants, yes, but
Vyvanse is an amphetamine and works to produce more neurotransmitters you don’t already have.
Cocaine is a reuptake inhibitor… thus preventing the breakdown of neurotransmitters you do already have.
While fundamentally they may look like they’re doing the same thing, they are in fact 2 totally different mechanisms. Furthermore, in neurotransmitter depletion the effects of cocaine will severely diminish, where as amphetamines will thrive.